51.	The Milky Way Galaxy is classified as Hubble type
a) cD,     b) Eb,     c) S0,     d) Sb,     e) E4.

52. 	A gamma ray burster may
a) emit thermal neutrons,
b) outshine the rest of the universe,
c) precurse a supernova,
d) be found at the core of most giant elliptical (cD) galaxies,
e) be a source of coherent cosmic rays.

53.	Convection occurs
a) in the core of the sun,
b) the core of the sun's nearest neighbour (star),
c) everywhere throughout a neutron star,
d) in the envelope of Sirius A,
e) in the core of Sirius A.

54.	Cosmic background radiation
a) fogs long exposure photographic plates,
b) sets a lower limit to the ionising radiation dose received at the earth's surface,
c) amounts to about 20 microSv per year,
d) peaks at a wavelength of about 1.1 mm,
e) is synchrotron radiation.

55.	The cosmological constant ? is
a) indistinguishable from unity,
b) the ratio of distance to redshift velocity,
c) a term in Einstein's field equations introduced to steady the universe,
d) a reference to the isotropic three degree black body radiation,
e) the centrifugal term in Einstein's field equations.

56	The cosmological principle states that
a) all galaxies have a universal redshift,
b) the universe looks the same at all times,
c) centrifugal terms in Einstein's field equations must vanish,
d) the universe is homogeneous and isotropic on a large enough scale,
e) the universe is the way it is because we are here to observe it.

57.	Cosmogony
a) is a pseudo form of cosmology,
b) is the same thing as cosmology,
c) deals with the origins and evolution of the universe,
d) can be used to determine relative distances between galaxies,
e) is an older form of static cosmology.

58.	A degenerate gas
a) is composed of spin one particles or bosons,
b) can never occur in stars in equilibrium,
c) obeys the perfect gas law,
d) supports the event horizon,
e) supports white dwarfs against collapse.

59.	Dwarf elliptical galaxies
a) are mostly escaped globular clusters,
b) are probably the most common galaxy in the universe,
c) contain vast amounts of dust,
d) rarely occur in poor clusters of galaxies,
e) rarely occur in rich clusters of galaxies.

60.	The event horizon
a) is the farthest one can see with any telescope,
b) is the theoretical "surface" of a black hole,
c) acts as a barrier through which nothing can pass,
d) is singular (point-like) in non-rotating black holes,
e) is the only discernible feature of a black hole.

61.	High-velocity stars
a) are stars ejected from clusters or star-forming regions,
b) are associated with globular clusters,
c) usually appear to move directly away from the centre of the Milky Way,
d) usually appear in association with gas and dust,
e) have a small velocity with respect to the solar system.

62	Hubble's constant  H  is related to or describes
a) the cosmological constant,
b) black hole dynamics,
c) the redshift-recession velocity formula  v=H D/2R,
d) the differential rotation of the galaxy,
e) the expansion rate of the universe.

63.	The main-sequence turn-off
a) is a line in the H-R diagram which divides true stars from "brown dwarfs", stars    with mass less than 0.08 M,
b) divides the H-R diagram into regions of stability and instability against stellar 
   pulsation,
c) is the upper limit to the main sequence,
d) is where the main sequence joins the giant branch,
e) occurs latest for older clusters.

64.	The Mass-to-light ratio indicates
a) the ratio of  population  I  to  population  II  stars in a galaxy,
b) the amount of "missing matter" in a galaxy,
c) how efficient a galaxy produced stars in the past,
d) the ratio of ionised to total matter in a cluster,
e) where a galaxy would fit on a galactic H-R diagram.

65.	A neutron star
a) has a radius not much greater than that of the event horizon of a black hole       having the same mass,
b) is supported by electron degeneracy,
c) always emits pulses of light,
d) does not emit continuous radiation,
e) probably must always be accompanied by a companion.

66.	The radius in kilometres of a neutron star as massive as the sun is about
a) 0.05,     b) 0.5,     c) 1.0,     d) 3.0,     e) 5.0 km.

67.	Neutron stars are actually composed mainly of
a) neutrons,
b) degenerate electrons,
c) yttrium (Yt),
d) iron (Fe),
e) a neutron-rich gas of He and H with Z>0.1.

68.	Novae are most likely associated with
a) star-forming regions,
b) massive stars,
c) stars similar to the sun,
d) binary stars,
e) flare stars.

69.	Oort's constant relates
a) radial velocities to distance and direction in the galaxy,
b) cometary impact probability to Z component of solar velocity,
c) total formation mass to residual mass in a stellar system,
d) absolute to differential rotation in the galaxy,
e) to the cosmic distance scale.

70.	The fact that there are three families of quarks and leptons was first discovered by astronomers based on observation of
a) the ripples on the cosmic background radiation,
b) the D/H ratio of the universe,
c) how many globular clusters existed,
d) the rotation curves of spiral galaxies,
e) the known quantity of "missing matter".

71.	Three minutes after the BIG BANG
a) the familiar forces of nature (strong, electroweak, gravity) separated,
b) the Higgs boson gave mass to fundamental particles,
c) the first protogalaxies formed,
d) familiar atoms (H, D, He) were formed,
e) the strong and electroweak forces separated.

72.	Planetary nebulae are or pertain to
a) nebulae which have a mass nearly that of the earth,
b) probably reflection nebulae,
c) roughly the same size as Jupiter,
d) a thick shell of gas moving out from an extremely hot star,
e) spherical nebulae that look like Jupiter.

73.	The S-process refers to
a) nucleosynthesis by the slow addition of nucleons,
b) sudden addition of neutrons in explosive nucleosynthesis,
c) the formation of sulphur in late stages of oxygen burning,
d) the stiff resistance put up by neutronium during gravitational collapse leading to         a supernova explosion,
e) the mechanism whereby stars slow down, shed angular momentum by way of 
   magnetohydrodynamic braking.

74.	The Tully-Fischer relation is or refers to
a) statistical parallax in the solar neighbourhood,
b) the method of moving cluster parallax,
c) galactic rotation (galactic dynamics), in reference to rotation constants in the    galaxy,
d) the dynamics of clusters of galaxies,
e) the luminosity distance of galaxies from 21-cm line widths.

75.	A combined visual/spectroscopic binary has a maximum radial velocity
      of 100 km/s between components, inclination i=30d and period 30 days.
      Assuming circular orbits, what is the semimajor axis of the system
      in astronomical units?
	a) 0.049,     b) 4.90,     c) 1,     d) 55,     e) 0.55.

76.	What is the combined mass (M1+M2) of the system described in problem 75
      above, in solar masses? 
	a) 0.25,     b) 2.512,     c) 25,     d) 250,     e) 2512.

77.	The central star of the Owl nebula is 16 times as luminous and 20 times
      hotter than the sun.  The central star's radius in terms of that of the
      sun's is
	a) 0.01,        b) 0.03,        c) 0.1,         d) 0.3,         e) 1.

78.	The ratio of the lifetime of a 30 solar mass star to that of the sun is about
	a) 1/20,        b) 1/5000,      c) 1/900,       d) 1/2700,      e) 1/64000.

79.	The monochromatic intensity I(?) d? peaks at a wavelength of about 5000Å.
      Wien's displacement law would suggest that the intensity peak for the
      A0V star iota Herculis (Te=11,600 K) occurs at a wavelength (Å) of about
      a) 3141,        b) 9750,        c) 1160,        d) 2500,        e) 911Å.

80.	The distance to a galaxy having redshift Z=0.10 in megaparsec (Mpc)
      would be, assuming Ho=50 km/s/Mpc,
	a) 0.011,     b) 11,     c) 0.585,     d) 5.11,     e) 0.0251 Mpc.

81.	An O star has a bolometric correction BC=3.5 magnitudes.
      The fraction of light in the V band is about
a) 10%,     b) 4%,     c) 40%,     d) 99.44%,      e) 96%.

82.	The cluster variables in a certain globular with 2 magnitudes of
      reddening appear at V=16.5 so the distance in kpc is about
	a) 12.5,     b) 0.15,     c) 1,     d) 3.3,     e) 0.75 kpc.

83.	At this very moment, the Sun
a) is producing more neutrinos than theory predicts,
b) is producing fewer neutrinos than theory predicts,
c) is in an "off" state as regards nuclear energy production,
d) has a convective core,
e) is not convecting.

84.	Continuous (continuum) radiation is associated with
a) bound-bound transitions in the negative hydrogen ion,
b) interstellar H and K,
c) H II emission nebular lines,
d) the negative hydrogen ion,
e) free-free transitions in doubly ionised hydrogen.

85.	The distance to the second nearest star to the sun in parsecs is
	a) 0.1,      b) 0.3,      c) 1.0,      d) 3.0,      e) 10 pc.

86.	The "standard" speed of Sol with respect to the local standard of rest
      (LSR) in km/s is
	a) 0.1,      b) 0.3,      c) 1.0,      d) 3.0,      e) 10 km/s.

87.	The parallax of 70 Oph is 0.192" so the distance in parsecs is about
	a) 0.1,      b) 0.3,      c) 1.0,      d) 3.0,      e) 10 pc.

88.	The apparent magnitude of 70 Oph is 4.22 so the absolute magnitude of
      70 Oph (see problem above) is
	a) 1.41,     b) 2.80,     c) 6.53,     d) 7.47,     e) 9.61.

89.	The effective temperature of Siruis (A0V) is about
	a) 5780,     b) 7776,     c) 9750,     d) 11800,    e) 15740K.

90.	The method of statistical parallaxes is based on
a) dynamical parallax,
b) moving clusters,
c) spectroscopic parallax,
d) the mass-luminosity relation,
e) secular parallax.

91.	There are two fundamental methods of determining parallax,
      trigonometric or annual parallax and
a) dynamical parallax,
b) moving clusters,
c) spectroscopic parallax,
d) the mass-luminosity relation,
e) secular parallax.

92.	An indirect but nevertheless reliable method of determining stellar distances based on 
visual binary star properties is called
a) dynamical parallax,
b) moving clusters,
c) spectroscopic parallax,
d) the mass-luminosity relation or H-R diagram,
e) secular parallax,

93.	The distance to a star whose apparent magnitude equals its absolute magnitude is, in 
pc, 
	a) 1,     b) 10,     c) 100,     d) 1000,     e) 10000 pc.

94.	The brightness ratio corresponding to a magnitude difference of 4 is
	a) 40,     b) 4,      c) 14,     d) 400,     e) 16.

95.	The apparent magnitude of the sun is -26.7.
      At Jupiter (5.2 AU) the sun would have an apparent magnitude of
	a) -26,       b) -23,       c) -21,       d) -22.5,      e) -19.

96.	The absolute magnitude of the sun is
	a) 2.7,     b) 6,      c) 4.8,     d) 5.74,     e) 8.4.

97.	Betelgeuse has a surface temperature  Te=3250 K  and is 1.2*10^5
      times as luminous as the sun.  Since the sun's Te=5780 K,
      the radius of Betelgeuse in terms of the sun's radius is about
	a) 12000,      b) 1.45,     c) 62,     d) 1100,     e) 68.5.

98.	The spectral class of the sun is
	a) G7 Ia,       b) K0 II,       c) F0,      d) A0 V,        e) G2 V.

99.	Spectral class O5 stars exhibit
a) high temperature molecular lines (electronic transitions),
b) lines of ionised calcium ("H" and "K" lines),
c) high temperature molecular bands (electronic transitions),
d) lines of singly ionised metals,
e) few lines in the visible spectrum.

100.	Most nearby stars (<20 pc) appear on the H-R diagram
a) along the lower main sequence,
b) on the giant branch,
c) to the right of the "forbidden zone",
d) along the subdwarf (sd) sequence,
e) uniformly spaced along the ZAMS.

==================Answers to here:=====================
51=d,b,e,d,c,d,c,e,b,b
61=b,e,e,c,a,e,a,d,a,b (64 also accept b)
71=d, 72=d or e, 73=a,e,e,c,a, 78=b or e, 79=d
80 whoops! v=0.1c=30,000 km/s ... divide by 50 to get 600MPc.
81=b,c,b,d,c,e,d,c,c,e
91=b,a,b,a,b,c,d,e,e,a
========================================================
101.	Many nearby stars (<20 pc) lie
a) well above the giant branch,
b) in the instability strip,
c) along the subdwarf (sd) sequence,
d) well below the main sequence,
e) to the left of the instability strip.

102.	If the nearby stars are a good sample, our sun is
a) relatively faint,
b) an average star,
c) relatively massive,
d) unique in having a planetary system,
e) relatively old.

103.	If you observe an M0 III star you can estimate its distance via
a) cluster parallax,
b) dynamic parallax,
c) spectroscopic parallax,
d) trigonometric parallax,
e) statistical parallax.

104.	The K line of ionised calcium  lies at 3933.68 Å.
      If the feature is seen in the spectrum of a star shifted
      to  3934.07 Å,  its radial velocity in km/s is
	a) 28,     b) -30,     c) 3.8,     d) -68,     e) 7 km/s.

105.	Eclipsing binary stars are particularly useful since they provide stellar
a) distances,
b) luminosities,
c) parallaxes,
d) rotation rates,
e) radii.

106.	The mass-luminosity relation is derived from
a) theoretical stellar models,
b) symbiotic and spectroscopic binary stars,
c) cluster diagrams,
d) stellar luminosity and radius determinations,
e) eclipsing binary stars.

107.	The mass-luminosity relation is approximately given by
a) the H-R diagram,
b) L is proportional to M to the 3.3 power,
c) (L/L')2=M/M',
d) the Hayashi track,
e) L=4piR^2sigmaT^4 where T is the "effective" temperature.

108.	The  H II regions shine primarily by
a) reflection,
b) bremsstrahlung radiation,
c) fluorescence,
d) collisional deexcitation,
e) the Bowen mechanism.

109.	Radio astronomers "see" H II regions by way of
a) 21 cm radiation,
b) maser action,
c) phosphorescence,
d) the Bowen mechanism,
e) radio recombination lines.

110.	The 21 cm line is often called
a) the spin flip line,
b) Bowen's line,
c) the H II thumb print,
d) maser action,
e) the OH tracer line.

111.	The Orion sword region qualifies as a
a) population II source,
b) Bok globule,
c) giant molecular cloud,
d) cold cloud,
e) small galaxy,

112.	The second most common constituent of cosmic rays is
	a) H I,      b) H II,      c) Deuterium,   d) Tritium,     e) He II.

113.	The Great Nebula in Orion's sword M42 should rise tonight at about
a) 1700,     b) 1900,     c) 2100,     d) 2300,     e) 0100.

114.	If the observed colour excess is two magnitudes, the V extinction is about
	a) 0.5,     b) 4,     c) 2.5,     d) 1,     e) 6 magnitudes.

115.	In addition to reddening, interstellar dust
a) refracts light out of the line of sight,
b) refracts or deflects cosmic rays,
c) enhances the 21 cm radiation,
d) polarises starlight,
e) causes interstellar absorption lines.

116.	A cloud of gas and dust may become a protostar if it undergoes
a) hydrostatic equilibrium,
b) gravitational stratification,
c) free-fall collapse,
d) a virial theorem violation,
e) cosmic therapy.

117.	Protostellar collapse is associated with
a) soft cosmic rays and gravitational radiation,
b) opacity decrease and core "bounce",
c) the ZAMS,
d) Hayashi tracks and the forbidden zone,
e) virial conflict and a "J" curve in the H-R diagram.

		The basic equations of stellar structure include
				a) dP=g rho dr
				b) dM=rho dV
				c) dL=epsilon dM
				d) epsilon(ij)=k Ni Nj ij
				e) dT/dr=dT/dr adiabatic
	Which of the above equations of stellar structure most nearly is/fits:
118.	conservation of mass,
119.	relates to the convective flow of energy through the star,
120.	closely related to the virial theorem?

	The major nuclear burning stages during stellar evolution include
			a) PP I,
			b) PP II,
			c) Carbon burning,
			d) CNO,
			e) Triple alpha.
		Which of the above nuclear processes
121.	is associated with thermal pulses on the AGB,
122.	makes Vega (A0 V) so bright,
123.	makes O9 V stars like 10 Lac shine,
124.	is going on in the core of a F5 II star?

125.	The CNO cycle is responsible for
a) a high N/C and Carbon-13 observed in some stars,
b) the production of C, N and O,
c) novae,
d) the observed cosmic composition of elements up to oxygen,
e) anomalous energy production in hot sub dwarfs.

126.	Main sequence stars gradually move off the ZAMS due to
a) core heating and expansion,
b) a switch from PP to CNO burning,
c) a switch from PP or CNO to 3? burning,
d) gravitational contraction of the envelope,
e) depletion of H in the core.

127.	When Hydrogen shell burning commences, the star
a) ejects a planetary nebula,
b) moves along a Hayashi line,
c) moves rapidly to the right in the H-R diagram,
d) begins burning He in the core,
e) moves through the Hertzsprung gap.

128.	The Pleiades cluster stars form a nice main sequence below spectral
      class  A while none of the Praesepe cluster stars are earlier than F.  Hence, 
a) The Pleiades contain more massive stars than Praesepe,
b) The Pleiades is younger than the Praesepe,
c) The Pleiades cluster has "blue stragglers",
d) Praesepe is an extremely young cluster compared to the Pleiades,
e) The Pleiades has a higher metal abundance than Praesepe.

129.	A one solar mass star the size of the earth is most likely to be
a) a white dwarf star,
b) a protostar,
c) the nucleus of a protostar,
d) a neutron star,
e) population II.

130.	A ten solar mass star the size of the earth is most likely to be
a) a neutron star,
b) way out of hydrostatic equilibrium,
c) the nucleus of a massive protostar,
d) population II,
e) to the extreme left in the H-R diagram.

131.	Type Ia supernovae attain maximum absolute magnitudes of around
	a) -26,     b) -6,     c) -9,     d) -19,     e) -42.

132.	Type I supernovae differ from type II in that they
a) have messy spectra compared to type II,
b) have a much greater power output than type II,
c) eject much more mass than type II,
d) occur more often than type II,
e) never occur in binary systems.

133.	A good example of a supernova remnant would be
a) the Orion nebula,
b) the Pleiades M45 (nebula),
c) the Gum nebula
d) the ring nebula (Lyra),
e) Omega Centaurus.

134.	Many astronomers believe that a supernova remnant will be a
      "black hole" if the remnant
a) exceeds five solar masses,
b) exceeds the Chandrasekhar limit,
c) is a member of a contact binary system,
d) does not spin faster than 1000 times per second,
e) spins faster than 1000 times per second.

135.	If you were to get within a few hundred km of a 10 solar mass
      black hole,  you would
a) notice your watch running backwards,
b) notice your watch running slow,
c) be engulfed by the ergosphere if you were in the equatorial plane
d) be crushed by tides,
e) be doomed to be crushed in the singularity.

136.	The Schwarzschild radius corresponding to one solar mass is about
a) 3 km,     b) 100 km,     c) 30 m,     d) 1.44 km,     e) 8 km.

137.	At 8pm (20:00) tonight
a) Vega and Deneb will be rising,
b) Crux will cross the meridian,
c) Canopus is low in the southwest,
d) Rigel and Betelgeuse will be rising,
e) M31 will be nearly setting.

138.	You are very likely to find population II stars
a) in the Orion complex,
b) confined to the galactic plane,
c) in galactic clusters,
d) in giant molecular complexes,
e) away from the plane of the galaxy.

139.	The center of our galaxy lies at a distance (kpc) of
	a) 0.5,     b) 8.5,     c) 15.5,     d) 4.5,     e) 27.5 kpc.

140.	The sun orbits the galaxy with a period [millions of years] of about
	a) 11,     b) 121,     c) 67,     d) 26,     e) 220 Myr.

141.	The orbital speed of the sun [km/s] around the galactic centre is about
	a) 11,     b) 121,     c) 67,     d) 26,     e) 220 km/s.

142.	A surprising feature of the rotation curves for spiral galaxies is
a) the rapid rise followed by a nearly linear fall,
b) a universal "bump" at a distance of 8.5 kpc,
c) the almost flat rotation out to large distances,
d) a dip at 3.5 kpc followed by a gradual rise out beyond 15 kpc,
e) the symmetry of the rotation curve on either side of the nucleus.

143.	Gravitational lensing may explain
a) supraluminal velocities observed in quasar jets,
b) the cosmic neutrino flux,
c) quasar variability,
d) certain aspects of the BL Lac objects,
e) the "double quasar".

144.	The "missing matter" pertains to or is relevant to
a) flat rotation curves,
b) the cores of quasars,
c) the three degree background radiation,
d) closure of the universe,
e) the D/H ratio.

		Which of the following objects
			a)  M31,
			b)  47 Tuc,
			c)  the Jewelbox,
			d)  the Trapezium,
			e)  R CrB,

145.	is located in the Orion complex,
146.	is 690 kpc away,
147.	is an open cluster,
148.	may generate interstellar dust,
149.	is strictly population II,
150.	is found in the southern cross?
================Answers 101-150====================
101=d,c,c,a,e,e,b,c,e,a
111=c,e, 113=b or c, 114=e,d,c,d,b,e,a
121=e,d,d,e,a,e,c,b,a,b (121 not used)
131=d,b,c,a,d,a,d,e,b,e (132 not used)
141=e,c,e,a,d,a,c,e,b,c
=====================================================